Hi All,
Just a business process question - is the FX valuation only done at month-end? What will be the FX rate used to pay (F110) the vendor at the time of payment? Will it be the FX rate based on the revaluation closest to the last month-end or will it be the unchanged FX rate assuming that revaluation is only done at month-end?
I have an example below:
1. I posted an invoice on Jan 1 at FX rate of 1:1.
2. On Jan 5, I will run an F110 to pay for this invoice but the FX rate on Jan 5 has changed to 1:2.
- What will the FX rate to be followed for the payment? 1:1 or 1:2?
- Between, Jan 1 to Jan 5, will there be an FX revaluation? How is it done?
Thanks,
Josef